RAV KOOK ON PARSHAS MISHPATIM: Slavery in the Torah
"If a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod, and the slave dies under his hand, the death must be avenged [the master is punished by death]. However, if the slave survives for a day or two, his death shall not be avenged, since he is his master's property." (Ex. 21:20-21)
The Torah portion of Mishpatim deals primarily with laws governing society — personal damages, lending money and articles, manslaughter, kidnapping, and so on. Overall, they fit in well with a modern sense of justice. The laws dealing with slaves, however, are difficult for us to digest.
Why does the Torah distinguish between a mortally wounded slave who dies immediately, and one who lingers for a day or two?
Is a slave truly "his master's property"?
In general, does the Torah look favorably on the institution of slavery?
"If a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod, and the slave dies under his hand, the death must be avenged [the master is punished by death]. However, if the slave survives for a day or two, his death shall not be avenged, since he is his master's property." (Ex. 21:20-21)
The Torah portion of Mishpatim deals primarily with laws governing society — personal damages, lending money and articles, manslaughter, kidnapping, and so on. Overall, they fit in well with a modern sense of justice. The laws dealing with slaves, however, are difficult for us to digest.
Why does the Torah distinguish between a mortally wounded slave who dies immediately, and one who lingers for a day or two?
Is a slave truly "his master's property"?
In general, does the Torah look favorably on the institution of slavery?
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